Grave_n_idle
27-08-2008, 16:31
I gave the price of oil, used to produce gasoline, at $3/gallon. I have provided proof to this price, in oil cost ranging as $115-$143 a barrel lately.
Sure, if you extend the number of months you're averaging it over to include enough time for the prices to hit the right extremes for your numbers to work...
That's called fudging your data, and it means your numbers are bullshit.
Here's what you said first:
"The oil alone for producing gasoline costs $3 per gallon, at the oil well, assuming all of it was converted to gasoline and diesel. In reality, only 70% is. And then there's transportation and processing, plus the infrastructure.
So the only reason some customers can get it for under $4 at a pump is government's help."
Here's what you said when I pointed out those data didn't manage what I had:
"Current oil price is $116/bbl. 116/42=$2.76 per gallon of oil.
When oil was $143/bbl, it reached $3.40 per gallon of oil."
Here's what you're saying, now:
"My numbers were correct. I said, 3 dollars per gallon, which is the typical price over last months."
You ignored the fact that I pointed out all the additional costs you added in, only total about 50 cents on the gallon, but that's okay - I kinda thought you would.
You changed your story from an actual cost, to a sort of aggregate cost, if you look at the right selection of data.
Yeah. Your numbers were bullshit.
Better still, show me the source proving PPP is universal. Say, a country where a Ford Mondeo or a similar-quality car costs 5 times less than in US. Or even make it 2 times less.
If you can't, it's specific to selection of products.
You're asking me explain PPP to you? Why are you even arguing economics?
"This purchasing power exchange rate equalizes the purchasing power of different currencies in their home countries for a given basket of goods. Using a PPP basis is arguably more useful when comparing differences in living standards on the whole between nations because PPP takes into account the relative cost of living and the inflation rates of different countries, rather than just a nominal gross domestic product (GDP) comparison.
...
They weren't.
Of course. You're arguing not to prove any point, but solely to show off your ability to pull out different definitions (Third World), pick on terms (the West), distort the arguments using that, and flame.
Here's what you said:
"Third world nations are poor all through. But maybe the government ...
I pointed out your position was somewhere between naive and just plain wrong:
"...'Third World' refers to the UN Human Development Index, with such nations as Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the UAE, China and India theoretically being 'Third World'.
The terminology is sometimes used politically, more often used of 'developing' nations... but most commonly, refers to the HDI rather than any other factor.
Being 'poor' has nothing to do with it. Another of your textbook mistakes.
You then tried to shift the goalposts, to prove me wrong, and pretend you'd been saying something else:
""Third World" refers to nations not in league with the NATO (First) or ex-Warsaw (Second).
You once again have your own definitions, different from these everyone else has.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_world"
Ignoring the fact that that was nothing like your argument to start with, and that YOU were desperately tryting to 'prove' ME wrong. You claimed I fabricated a definition, and provided a source to try to shut me down.
So - I did what you hadn't done - I read your source, and lo and behold, it validates my argument. Here's what I said:
"That's one of the possible meanings, but not considered key. Amusingly - it's what I talked about (political) rather than what you talked about (poor)... so you just made a liar of your own argument.
And here's what your source said:
""Today, however, the term is frequently used to denote nations with a low UN Human Development Index (HDI), independent of their political status. However, there is no objective definition of Third World or Third World country and the use of the term remains controversial.
The petroleum-rich countries (Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, United Arab Emirates, etc.) and the new industrial countries (India, China, Malaysia, Thailand, Brazil, Mexico etc.) as well as the rapidly growing countries such as (Pakistan, Egypt, Indonesia, Russia, etc.) have little if anything in common with poor countries (Haiti, Chad, Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Somalia, etc.)"."
You're talking about me changing definitions, picking terms, distorting arguments... I just ran through that one little aspect, and YOU changed position, YOU mis-defined the term to start with, and when I presented the common understanding of the phrase, YOU attempted to pick the terms (or change the definition, whichever you prefer), by arguing that 'Third World' basically only had one meaning.
I don't have to show off my ability, you're doing at least half the work of making your argument look stupid.
UK spends about $4k per capita in its healthcare budget, which is quite comparable to the cost of health insurance elsewhere.
And it's still known to have some issues.
US stands out in its healthcare spending, but a number of other countries also have fully private, high quality healthcare.
http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/pages/frontline/sickaroundtheworld/countries/
The Canadian healthcare system is nationalised, and costs about 3k per head. The UK system is nationalised and costs about 4k per head. The US system (as of three years ago, it's increased since then) cost more than twice what Canada's system costs... or as much as Canada AND the UK put together. Per head.
The cost of the three systems is 'comparable' only in as much as they all have numbers in. But, the point stands - if the US nationalised healthcare, it would be (substantially) more affordable - both on a personal level, and on a national level.
OR that business simply can't be profitable under a high taxation level. For instance, if the cost to make the product plus tax is higher than the price a sufficient number of customers would pay for it.
Then you're investing in a losing product, not a losing company. A losing company will continue to produce that product at a loss, despite the fact that the lack of customers willing to pay for it SHOWS there's no demand.
A losing company will fold on that abd product. A winning company will find someway to increase the input.
GM's Volt may turn out to be the product change that shows whether today's GM is a winner or a loser.
Sure, if you extend the number of months you're averaging it over to include enough time for the prices to hit the right extremes for your numbers to work...
That's called fudging your data, and it means your numbers are bullshit.
Here's what you said first:
"The oil alone for producing gasoline costs $3 per gallon, at the oil well, assuming all of it was converted to gasoline and diesel. In reality, only 70% is. And then there's transportation and processing, plus the infrastructure.
So the only reason some customers can get it for under $4 at a pump is government's help."
Here's what you said when I pointed out those data didn't manage what I had:
"Current oil price is $116/bbl. 116/42=$2.76 per gallon of oil.
When oil was $143/bbl, it reached $3.40 per gallon of oil."
Here's what you're saying, now:
"My numbers were correct. I said, 3 dollars per gallon, which is the typical price over last months."
You ignored the fact that I pointed out all the additional costs you added in, only total about 50 cents on the gallon, but that's okay - I kinda thought you would.
You changed your story from an actual cost, to a sort of aggregate cost, if you look at the right selection of data.
Yeah. Your numbers were bullshit.
Better still, show me the source proving PPP is universal. Say, a country where a Ford Mondeo or a similar-quality car costs 5 times less than in US. Or even make it 2 times less.
If you can't, it's specific to selection of products.
You're asking me explain PPP to you? Why are you even arguing economics?
"This purchasing power exchange rate equalizes the purchasing power of different currencies in their home countries for a given basket of goods. Using a PPP basis is arguably more useful when comparing differences in living standards on the whole between nations because PPP takes into account the relative cost of living and the inflation rates of different countries, rather than just a nominal gross domestic product (GDP) comparison.
...
They weren't.
Of course. You're arguing not to prove any point, but solely to show off your ability to pull out different definitions (Third World), pick on terms (the West), distort the arguments using that, and flame.
Here's what you said:
"Third world nations are poor all through. But maybe the government ...
I pointed out your position was somewhere between naive and just plain wrong:
"...'Third World' refers to the UN Human Development Index, with such nations as Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the UAE, China and India theoretically being 'Third World'.
The terminology is sometimes used politically, more often used of 'developing' nations... but most commonly, refers to the HDI rather than any other factor.
Being 'poor' has nothing to do with it. Another of your textbook mistakes.
You then tried to shift the goalposts, to prove me wrong, and pretend you'd been saying something else:
""Third World" refers to nations not in league with the NATO (First) or ex-Warsaw (Second).
You once again have your own definitions, different from these everyone else has.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_world"
Ignoring the fact that that was nothing like your argument to start with, and that YOU were desperately tryting to 'prove' ME wrong. You claimed I fabricated a definition, and provided a source to try to shut me down.
So - I did what you hadn't done - I read your source, and lo and behold, it validates my argument. Here's what I said:
"That's one of the possible meanings, but not considered key. Amusingly - it's what I talked about (political) rather than what you talked about (poor)... so you just made a liar of your own argument.
And here's what your source said:
""Today, however, the term is frequently used to denote nations with a low UN Human Development Index (HDI), independent of their political status. However, there is no objective definition of Third World or Third World country and the use of the term remains controversial.
The petroleum-rich countries (Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, United Arab Emirates, etc.) and the new industrial countries (India, China, Malaysia, Thailand, Brazil, Mexico etc.) as well as the rapidly growing countries such as (Pakistan, Egypt, Indonesia, Russia, etc.) have little if anything in common with poor countries (Haiti, Chad, Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Somalia, etc.)"."
You're talking about me changing definitions, picking terms, distorting arguments... I just ran through that one little aspect, and YOU changed position, YOU mis-defined the term to start with, and when I presented the common understanding of the phrase, YOU attempted to pick the terms (or change the definition, whichever you prefer), by arguing that 'Third World' basically only had one meaning.
I don't have to show off my ability, you're doing at least half the work of making your argument look stupid.
UK spends about $4k per capita in its healthcare budget, which is quite comparable to the cost of health insurance elsewhere.
And it's still known to have some issues.
US stands out in its healthcare spending, but a number of other countries also have fully private, high quality healthcare.
http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/pages/frontline/sickaroundtheworld/countries/
The Canadian healthcare system is nationalised, and costs about 3k per head. The UK system is nationalised and costs about 4k per head. The US system (as of three years ago, it's increased since then) cost more than twice what Canada's system costs... or as much as Canada AND the UK put together. Per head.
The cost of the three systems is 'comparable' only in as much as they all have numbers in. But, the point stands - if the US nationalised healthcare, it would be (substantially) more affordable - both on a personal level, and on a national level.
OR that business simply can't be profitable under a high taxation level. For instance, if the cost to make the product plus tax is higher than the price a sufficient number of customers would pay for it.
Then you're investing in a losing product, not a losing company. A losing company will continue to produce that product at a loss, despite the fact that the lack of customers willing to pay for it SHOWS there's no demand.
A losing company will fold on that abd product. A winning company will find someway to increase the input.
GM's Volt may turn out to be the product change that shows whether today's GM is a winner or a loser.