NationStates Jolt Archive


How can Christians believe in Homosexuality? - Page 2

Pages : 1 [2]
RhynoD
01-04-2008, 21:54
Your mistaking 'Jesus' with 'Jezuz'....

No, I think he's talking about Jebus.
MrBobby
01-04-2008, 22:33
If you are Christian and opposing gay marriage, you are:



violating the Law of Agape (specifically, Matthew 22:39, Mark 12:31, Matthew 19:19, Romans 13:9), which is at the core of Yeshua's teachings.

judging your fellow man, which is warned against in the bible (Matthew 7:1-2, Luke 6:37).

raping the bible, as homosexuality is not a sin. Don't even bother posting "NO UR WRONG" unless you're prepared to post verses along with your assertions.

arguing against equal rights for a people who are hardly different from the norm and who never offended you.


You may also be under the misconceptions that marriage is a purely Christian term, or that Christian marriage is a church affair. Both are false, as marriage is a legal term, and does not mean "Christian partnership" or any other such nonsense, and marriage in the biblical sense consists of two people getting to know one another in the biblical sense, and sticking around to spend the rest of their lives with one another afterward.

There was not even a Greek or Hebrew word for homosexuality in biblical times, and just because it is used in popular mistranslations does not make it an actual part of the bible. Every word taken to mean "homosexuality" has either been twisted or misconstrued in a way that cannot reasonably be considered to be definitive.

The two lists are poorly translated in the cases of homosexuality. Three words are found in these passages that are used to relate to homosexual sex: Pornia, Arsenokoitas and Malakoi. Pornia means pervert. That’s all it really means. It refers to sexual perversion, but makes no statement as to what that perversion is. It is far too general to relate to homosexual sex. Malakoi refers to softness or effeminacy, with implications of perversion. The term is used to refer to a man who is too passionate and emotional, and who acts upon these. It relates to the Grecian concepts of gender identity. The man was not to be emotional in this fashion. If one stretches the meaning of the word, examples are found where Malakoi may refer to the ‘bottom’ partner of pederasty. This is a relationship wherein a teenage boy traded sexual favors with an older man in return for guidance and training. It was common within Greek society and accepted in Roman society. Arsenokoitas is a compound word derived from the Greek words for man and bed. While this sounds like a clear reference to homosexuality to our modern ears, there is a problem. The word does not appear at any point prior to Paul’s letters. To our knowledge, he created the term himself. Its usage in all other cases I am aware of either represents something akin to an aggressive sexual predator or, more commonly, the ‘top’ partner in pederasty. At most these verses could possibly have listed pederasty as a crime, but not homosexual sex alone. You cannot read into the text the fact that, because something condemned includes another thing, that other thing is automatically condemned as well. For example, a person who breaks the commandment about not bearing false testimony against one’s neighbor must communicate to do so. Communication is not condemned, is it? The condemnation of pederasty cannot be clearly related, even in consideration of Jewish morals that Paul is familiar with, to a condemnation of homosexual sex. Look at http://www.clgs.org/5/5_4_3.html for further details on the specifics of Arsenokoites and Malakoi.


Additionally, before you start citing Leviticus, the Mosaic Law is moot according to Yeshua. If Christianity is in any way correct, the Old Law no longer applies, and certainly not to non-Jews. Were your ancestors enslaved in Egypt? Did they wander in the desert? Did they do dumb things with a golden idol? Because if not, there isn't even the beginning of a case for the continuity of Mosaic Law.

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Have a nice day :)

Sorry, why do we have 14 pages of discussion AFTER this?
As we all know, the bible is not the literal word of God or Jesus- it has been translated, changed, and retold, and with each has been changed to the sensibilities of the time.

And, OP- why is it that you say 'we don't know everything Jesus said, therefore we can't know he didn't object to homosexuality' and somehow make this mean he DID object? As someone pointed out, we are likely to have been given what was seen as his most important teachings, anyway. If people cared about homosexuality, either because that was how their society viewed it, or because Jesus told them it was important- then anything he said regarding it would have been retold and we would still know about it today.
Redwulf
01-04-2008, 22:34
No, I think he's talking about Jebus.

Or possibly JEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEE-ZUHS!
MrBobby
01-04-2008, 23:26
wow, i only got up to ~ page 5 before posting my reply... it appears after reading some more that I've gone off topic from off topic. ie back on topic.... oops :/
Jazvad Island
02-04-2008, 05:49
As a Christian, I don't support homosexuality in the least. I am annoyed wholeheartedly when Christian folk make themselves hypocrites and accepting of it and its similar.

"....and forgive us our trespasses, as we forgive those who trespass against us."

Look, it's not a matter of whether homosexuality is sinful or not. The question is whether you should disgrace them and spit on them cause they sin. Jesus ate dinner with prostitutes and tax collectors, and he would be the first to point out that YOU CANNOT FOLLOW HIM if you will not "lift a finger" to help those who are in need of help. I suggest that if they care this much about this, the evangelicals should get down from their pretty little pedestals and out from their emaculately-kept Subruban houses, sell their posessions and move to gay neighborhoods across the country. Be a mission to them - don't condemn them you Pharisee!