Daktoria
18-12-2007, 20:01
Hey guys. I just read through the Why socialism if fundamentally unsound (http://forums.jolt.co.uk/showthread.php?t=545282) thread I posted a few days ago, and had a couple questions. One of which is, "How can 2 cooperative workers be considered the equivalent of 2 independent workers?"
I'm taking it a given that we have a ton of economists here, so I won't go into detail about what Adam Smith talked about in The Wealth of Nations. Still, if 2 (or any number) of workers specialize in a
I'm taking it a given that we have a ton of economists here, so I won't go into detail about what Adam Smith talked about in The Wealth of Nations. Still, if 2 (or any number) of workers specialize in a