NationStates Jolt Archive


Need help from a Keynesian...

Ragbralbur
17-12-2006, 06:30
I'm trying to figure out why I am wrong.

On Consumption and Investment

Lately, I have been reading Keynes' "The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money", hereafter just referred to as "General Theory...". Before I get into it, I want to point out that Keynes' theory is airtight once you get past the original assumption, and that this consistent nature is remarkable in its own right. That said, the original assumption, one that has been ignored, I believe, for as long as it has been in existence, gives me pause.

Keynes describes two types of private expenditures in the economy: consumption and investment. Consumption, he points out, is used for immediate gratification. The gratification of investment, he understandably maintains, is deferred to a later date. This difference, his theory seems to state, makes consumption more valuable to immediate economic growth than investment. Based on the semantics of the definitions provided, it would seem reasonable that instant gratification would have more to do with immediate economic growth. This is where things go wrong.

As I see it, how one derives value from an expenditure has absolutely nothing to do with immediate economic growth. What matters is that the expenditure takes place. You could be buying a chocolate bar for immediate consumption or investing in a faster internet connection or even depositing your money in a bank for future use. The fact is that you are putting money through the system in each of these cases. In the first case, you employ the convenience store clerk, the maker of the candy bar and other random people associated with the production. In the second, you employ people providing you with the internet service. In the third, you employ bank employees and allow more individuals to get loans with your money.

In each of these cases, how you derive value from your money is unimportant. Instead, the important factor is that your money continues going through the system. The only way the money could be removed from the system is if you were to buy bonds from the government, which would be a contractionary monetary policy on the part of the government. In all other cases, the expenditures have the exact same effect.

This, I believe, is the tragic pitfall in Keynes' work. If you assume consumption is somehow more valuable than investment, then by all means increasing consumption through government spending and the multiplier effect is a completely valid approach to increasing effective demand. However, if you accept that effective demand is indiscriminate between consumption and investment, then emphasizing one aspect over the other is merely switching money from one pocket to the other without adding any value.

Furthermore, if you assume that consumption can reduce unemployment and that investment cannot, you will draw all the same conclusions that Keynes does in "General Theory...". Once this dichotomy is established, the whole work, at least as far as I've read, is logically inpenetrable. It is this critical first step of separating the two types of private expenditures that fouls up the whole system.

Going forward, I would recommend that we do away with the concept of consumption and investment, instead focusing on whether the expenditures are public or private. Firstly, this would remove many of the uncertainties of the current definitions, such as whether buying the "General Theory..." is consumption because I read it right away, or investment because I gain knowledge from it that helps me in the future. Secondly, and more importantly, it would remove the temptation to treat different gratification times of the same expenditure as different items. After all, it is the time in which the expenditure is incurred, not the time in which its value is realized, that determines how quickly it moves through the system.

Keynes' "General Theory..." is a pretty nifty concept, and in most cases the whole theory still lines up. He created an arbitrary division in expenditures and went on to examine how this division would move through the economy through factors such as the multiplier. Had the divsion truly reflected a difference in how the money travelled in the system, it would be an immensely valuable tool. As it currently stands, one unfortunate mistake damages the whole system, and, in my opinion, nullifies its value to the modern economist.
Lacadaemon
17-12-2006, 07:11
Is that Freidman?
Newtdom
17-12-2006, 17:40
Is this paper with regards to micro-economics? You are focusing far too much on personal spending, when Keynes mostly focused on macro-economic policy. The problem is Keynesian economics fails to recognize the Crowding Out effect. That is, 100 billion in government expenditures results in 100 billion less in private spending.

I’m a little tired; otherwise I would add some more points. But just keep in mind, in “General Theory…” Keynes was advocating a new method for economic policy on a macro level, so look above the private investor, or the candy bar maker. Rather look at the government, or large corporations.
Ragbralbur
18-12-2006, 06:39
Is that Friedman?
No, that's me, but I'm thrilled that you would make such a positive comparison.
Schwarzchild
18-12-2006, 09:13
Freidman was ten times the economist Keynes was. Yet, I cannot help but respect Lord Keynes. He was dead on when he wrote about the economic consequences of the WWI peace deal and the amount of war reparations Germany was forced to pay. He predicted serious consequences.

His General Theory while influential made some flawed assumptions:

a. He assumed for instance that (marginal) labor productivity decreases with expanding employment. This is incompatible with the empirical findings summarized in Okun's Law, which states for every one percentage point by which the actual unemployment rate exceeds the "natural" rate of unemployment, real gross domestic product is reduced by 2% to 3%. That is, unemployment above the inflation-threshold unemployment rate reduces GDP below potential output, and for every 1% excess of the natural unemployment rate, a 2% to 3% reduction in GDP is predicted. The difference between actual and potential GDP is called the GDP gap. It may be expressed as a percentage or an absolute amount.

b. He implied that real wages decrease with increasing employment. This is empirically incorrect as pointed out by Dunlop.

c. Keynes also suggested that inflation would only occur at a state near full employment, when in fact severe underemployment the rate of inflation creeps up as has been observed in past cases of such a state (called Stagflation by learned economists).

Freidman called General Theory "a great book," but went on to argue that the implicit seperation of nominal from real magnitudes is neither possible nor desirable. Freidman goes on to argue further that macroeconomic policy can only influence the nominal. Finally, Freidman argued that Keynesian economics can result in low growth and high inflation.

Good sources that critique, General Theory" in addition to Freidman, include Henry Hazlitt's The Failure of the New Economics and Roger Garrison's Time and Money: The Macroeconomics of Capital Structure.

I claim no original argument here. I provide the resources to become better informed. I am not fond of Keynes and I much prefer Freidman in the long run, I think the economists who followed Freidman have a more realistic view of Macroeconomics and Capital Theory.
Neu Leonstein
18-12-2006, 09:39
Is this paper with regards to micro-economics? You are focusing far too much on personal spending, when Keynes mostly focused on macro-economic policy.
I'd agree.

Keynes disconnected micro- from macroeconomics (some would argue that Keynes more or less invented macroeconomics as a seperate field). Economists have since then put the two together again with the Neo-Keynesians and Rational Expectations and all that stuff, but I don't think you can criticise the General Theory for not doing that, given the context. It would be like criticising 'Wealth of Nations' for not including game theory.
Newtdom
18-12-2006, 16:31
Oh, most definately. If I came across criticizing General Theory, I'm sorry, it is an excellent work. However, I think most economists have moved past the idea that more government spending helps bring a country out of recession, stagnation, or inflation. But that is just my opinion, of course.
Schwarzchild
18-12-2006, 19:39
Oh, most definately. If I came across criticizing General Theory, I'm sorry, it is an excellent work. However, I think most economists have moved past the idea that more government spending helps bring a country out of recession, stagnation, or inflation. But that is just my opinion, of course.

You shouldn't be sorry. I think modern economics is SLOWLY emerging from the effect of Keyne's work. Certainly modern political figures will be the last to move on.

"General Theory" was an excellent work for it's time, but modern macro-economic thought has gone past it now.
Jello Biafra
19-12-2006, 13:29
I'm not a Keynesian, but I would say that while your analysis is correct, some of your conclusions aren't. I agree that the definitions between consumption and investment income need to be hashed out better. I also agree that it is the point that the expenditure is made that matters. With that said, there is a distinction between the two.
For instance, if I have $1000, and I buy something with it, I make an expenditure that immediately enters the economy. At that moment, my $1000 is back into the economy. But, if I put it into a savings account, the money doesn't really enter into the economy until the bank lends it out, and furthermore, it doesn't add anything to the economy until after the lendee has paid back the principal plus some of the interest. So, there is a time difference between consumption and investment, and different governmental policies can influence how much of each people will do.