NationStates Jolt Archive

My great-grandmother, subsequent to a considerable decline in standard living ( ayear ago she lived alone, she now requires nursing care), has obliged the medical staff to withdraw, and not supply, all medication. Whilst I fully respect her decision, and am aware that her death is thus an impending inevitability, I was simply curious as to what this constitutes in relation to Euthanasia, and its according legality.

I personally construe it as voluntary Euthanasia of sorts, however any further perspectives, and citings of British or EU law, would be much appreciated.

don't know about British law, but here in America, they really can't force you to take your meds unless they have a court order. so it's legal here. You can also sign a DNR so they can't do CPR if you need it. It pissed me off when my grandma did that, but I figured out it was her right and I would probably have done it to if I was in her position.

It's not euthanasia. That would be if nursing staff gave her TOO much medication. A patient has the right to refuse medicine if they want to.
Best wishes to you and your family :fluffle:

don't know about British law, but here in America, they really can't force you to take your meds unless they have a court order. so it's legal here. You can also sign a DNR so they can't do CPR if you need it. It pissed me off when my grandma did that, but I figured out it was her right and I would probably have done it to if I was in her position.
(DNR= Do not resuscitate)

(DNR= Do not resuscitate)
yeah, so when she went into cardiac arrest they couldn't give her CPR, that's what I said. (also, they couldn't shock her or give her meds, but she had a specific one, that said "no lifesaving measures at all")

http://www.wma.net/e/policy/l4.htm

A mentally competent adult patient has the right to give or withhold consent to any diagnostic procedure or therapy. The patient has the right to the information necessary to make his/her decisions. The patient should understand clearly what is the purpose of any test or treatment, what the results would imply, and what would be the implications of withholding consent.

Not aware of the specifics. In general terms, though, this is probably protected by the Human Rights Act, the European Convention on Human Rights, the European Convention on Human Rights and Biomedicine, the European Charter of Fundamental Rights, and others. Specifically, Article 35 of the ECFR includes the right to refuse treatment. Furthermore, if one argues forcable medication is a cruel or inhumane treatment, then you get into the realms of international human rights law.

But, I'm basically sure she has the right to refuse treatment, unless sectioned under the Mental Health Act

http://www.wma.net/e/policy/l4.htm
What legal force does that have in the UK?