NationStates Jolt Archive


I wonder who can answer this...

Vtorbetin
22-05-2005, 21:52
The statement which is closest in meaning to 'Nothing is value-free' is:

A 'you don't get something for nothing'.
B 'nobody has a completely open mind'.
C 'there's no such thing as a free lunch'.
D 'everthing has its price'.

Despite my original 'WTF', I actually got this question right. Let's see who else can (without cheating).
Jordaxia
22-05-2005, 21:53
I'm going to go with D, but if I was given a few more moments to reconsider I might say A.
Skinny87
22-05-2005, 21:53
Damn. A or B...

B
CJ Holdings
22-05-2005, 21:54
D?
Skinny87
22-05-2005, 21:58
I think that is a sociology question, or at least sociology based...
Utracia
22-05-2005, 21:59
A. I agree with the statement that A brings anyway.
Neo-Anarchists
22-05-2005, 22:01
Tricky. The use of the word 'value' throws me off. If it said 'cost' or something similar, I would go with either A or C. But as of now, I'm not sure.
Tetrannia
22-05-2005, 22:02
D. Most obviously D.
Jordaxia
22-05-2005, 22:02
Tricky. The use of the word 'value' throws me off. If it said 'cost' or something similar, I would go with either A or C. But as of now, I'm not sure.

huh. I looked at it differently. I was more looking at it in a Nothing *the absence of an object, rather than to except every object* is value free. Like Cars have value. Nothing is Value free.
Eutrusca
22-05-2005, 22:03
The statement which is closest in meaning to 'Nothing is value-free' is:

A 'you don't get something for nothing'.
B 'nobody has a completely open mind'.
C 'there's no such thing as a free lunch'.
D 'everthing has it's price'.

Despite my original 'WTF', I actually got this question right. Let's see who else can (without cheating).
I'd have to say "D" as well.
Kamsaki
22-05-2005, 22:38
I say C. Nothing is Value-free means, to me, that everything has its worth. Similarly, there's no such thing as a free lunch means that even if you don't pay for it, it's still valuable and someone must at some stage have transferred its value to you.

Maybe. >_>;
Alien Born
22-05-2005, 22:52
Being a philosopher, not an economist, value, for me implies beliefs and judgement weights, so I chose B.

It would help to have the context of the question, as there are various context dependent terms there.
Lord-General Drache
23-05-2005, 00:51
C. I had to do this in U.S. Economics.
Frisbeeteria
23-05-2005, 00:53
value-free is not a term I would associate with economics, but more with philosophy. Had they been talking about perceived value versus market-driven value, they would have used different terms. I therefore chose B as the most likely philosophical answer to this question.
Niccolo Medici
23-05-2005, 01:35
If everything has a price, that means everything has value. If everything has its price, that means nothing is value-free. Thus; D.

If there's no such thing as a free lunch, that means that nothing important in this world is given without a catch. That means that what is often advertised as free has hidden costs. That's very nearly the same thing.

B says that "Nobody has a completely open mind", indicating values in a moral sense; no induvidual has a mind that attaches no value to any thing or action. Thus "Nothing is value-free" indicates that values extend to ALL things, regardless of sentience or even animation. This hardly seems like the same sentance. B is not correct.

A says "You don't get something for nothing." Meaning that everything has to be exchanged for something else, there are no gains that come from the void. However, this is different than saying that everything has value, because it implies such a statement but takes it further. Even if something HAS value, it could theoritically be given for free. A states that it cannot be given for free, thus making it significantly different than the first statment.
Deleuze
23-05-2005, 01:40
The statement which is closest in meaning to 'Nothing is value-free' is:

A 'you don't get something for nothing'.
B 'nobody has a completely open mind'.
C 'there's no such thing as a free lunch'.
D 'everthing has it's price'.

Despite my original 'WTF', I actually got this question right. Let's see who else can (without cheating).
I don't think there's a right answer to this question, but I chose D.
Here are my reasons:
A is a more innacurate facsimile of D. A implies a process of "getting," which is not implied in the original statement or in D.

B to me seems too roundabout. To match with B, the original statement should have been "Everything is classified and calculated." However, judgement and value are not necessarily synonyms.

C, like A, implies getting a specific thing. D is closer to the original statement.

My opinion, anyway.
Naturality
23-05-2005, 01:44
The statement which is closest in meaning to 'Nothing is value-free' is:

-snip-

I'd have to go with A or D.
Neo-Anarchists
23-05-2005, 01:44
Niccolo Medici and Deleuze's arguments have convinced me to choose D.
Deleuze
23-05-2005, 01:46
Being a philosopher, not an economist, value, for me implies beliefs and judgement weights, so I chose B.

It would help to have the context of the question, as there are various context dependent terms there.
The reason I don't think B philosophically matches with the statement is because if nothing is value-free, it implies that nothing can be valued or appraised to be nothing. I believe that value judgements as a philosophical concept necessarily must account for devaluation to having no worth or importance. Thus, if worth=value, the original statement means that nothing can be devalued to nothing in the human mind, which is false.
Upitatanium
23-05-2005, 02:05
I'm beginning to think they are all correct but it depends on your point of view.

EDIT

The statement which is closest in meaning to 'Nothing is value-free' is:

A 'you don't get something for nothing'.
B 'nobody has a completely open mind'.
C 'there's no such thing as a free lunch'.
D 'everthing has it's price'.

If you as me 'value' and 'price' are relative. The price is a reflection of the value of the commodity in the market. It is relative since water to a thirsty person would have more value to that of someone who is not thirsty. A simple application of supply and semand a setting the price according to value (you provide stuff only if you expect something of equal or greater value in return).

So 'C' would be the best answer in economics.

D would be the best answer for literal translation without the value/price nuance.

B is a more metaphysical answer and is personified to rob it of it's more technical meanings.

A...just looks like a very generalized version of D.
Guitar Muzic
23-05-2005, 02:24
D. I'm really sure.
Waterana
23-05-2005, 02:48
I'm going with C.

I decided on that because....

"Nothing is value free"

means everything is worth something

which means even a free lunch has value

which means there is no such thing as a free lunch.

I probably got it wrong, but thats my reasoning :).
Vtorbetin
23-05-2005, 17:57
Bump

I'll give it about another day, then I'll reveal the correct answer.
Troon
23-05-2005, 19:13
Bump

I'll give it about another day, then I'll reveal the correct answer.

If you say something like "E; a 5th option no-one even thought of!" I might just be forced to feed you to lions.
Kamsaki
23-05-2005, 19:34
If you say something like "E; a 5th option no-one even thought of!" I might just be forced to feed you to lions.

Heh... no such thing as a free lunch indeed...
Vtorbetin
23-05-2005, 20:40
If you say something like "E; a 5th option no-one even thought of!" I might just be forced to feed you to lions.

Well now that you mention it... ;)
Cam III
23-05-2005, 20:53
F!
nah, i think D....
Vtorbetin
24-05-2005, 19:49
And the correct answer is...

E, a fifth option no-one even thought of!

No, actually, the correct answer is B.

Frisbeeteria and Alien-Born gave pretty much the correct reasoning - well done to all the others that got it right.
Sonho Real
24-05-2005, 20:23
EDIT: Ah, well, got it wrong, I thought it was D.

Where did you get this question from, out of interest?
Vtorbetin
24-05-2005, 20:37
EDIT: Ah, well, got it wrong, I thought it was D.

Where did you get this question from, out of interest?

This question was taken from an A Level General Studies exam paper from a few years ago. Just goes to show the sort of crap we learn here in the UK. ;)
12345543211
24-05-2005, 20:50
Woohoo! I answered the majority answer without cheating!
Cambridge Major
24-05-2005, 21:08
I won't say I hate to be a pedant, because I would be lying.

The possessive "its" does not take an apostrophe. The word "it's" only exists as a contraction of "it is".

And now I have done my duty to the world.
Vtorbetin
25-05-2005, 09:02
That's just me typing too fast and not thinking about what I'm typing.
Saxnot
25-05-2005, 09:51
And the correct answer is...

E, a fifth option no-one even thought of!

No, actually, the correct answer is B.

Frisbeeteria and Alien-Born gave pretty much the correct reasoning - well done to all the others that got it right.
Haha! Does it have to do with positive and normative statements in an economic sense then? That was my reasoning.
Vtorbetin
26-05-2005, 13:41
Haha! Does it have to do with positive and normative statements in an economic sense then? That was my reasoning.

:confused: ...yes...that's right.