NationStates Jolt Archive

In an effort to see which nations are advanced and which are, as the Esamopian Minister of Science said: "plain dumb," Esamopia City mathematician, Dr. Hemin Harr, has provided the following proof:

Let X=1

1 = X
X = X^2
X-1 = X^2 - 1
X-1 = (X-1)(X+1)
dividing each side by (X-1)
1 = X+1,
1 = 2 !!

Nations having an answer to this "mysterious" :roll: proof should send post their results here or hopefully send a telegram (as this will prove that you did not cheat off of whatever nation gets the answer.)

Good luck... first ten nations with correct answer get free cookies... or something!

"Do all nations truly believe that 1 = 2, Professor?"
"Indeed... with super advanced weapons and advances into nanotechnology for some, they still do not know basic mathematics..."

Post here now if you know!! (BUMP)

BUMP

When you divide by X-1, you are dividing by 0. This is impossible in mathematics (try it on a calculator). That is where the proof falls down. I have seen similair in:

a^2-a^2=a^2-a^2
a(a-a)=(a-a)(a+a)
Divide by (a-a)

a=a+a

Hence 1=2, 3=4...

Nice try though!

Your mistake comes in step 5, when you divided by (x-y) on both sides.
Since x = y, x-y = 0, so you are dividing by zero, which is undefined
(illegal!).

What do you think you're doing dividing by zero? Outrageous behaviour say our mathematicians.

ugh, surely everyone knows that 1 / 0 = infinity

tut tut

Thank you! Finally some nations step up to the challenge.

Yes, you are most correct, I was just trying to see how many nations would actually know that (sort of a reality check with all these nations claiming to have technology we cannot even dream of.)

Good job, a year's supply of cookies and milk will be delievered to all your leaders, they can split them however they wish.

I've sent the answer by telegram.

HINT: The problem is NOT in the division of the equation...it has nothing to do with 0.

Thank you! Finally some nations step up to the challenge.

Yes, you are most correct, I was just trying to see how many nations would actually know that (sort of a reality check with all these nations claiming to have technology we cannot even dream of.)

Good job, a year's supply of cookies and milk will be delievered to all your leaders, they can split them however they wish.

I suggest you check your source. It does not have to do with deviding by zero.

Go on then. What is the reason?

perhaps there are multiple reasons

Go on then. What is the reason?

I sent the reason into Esamopia via message. You'll have to wait for him to tell it. But I'll give one more hint, it has to do with the first two equations.

1 = X
and
X = X^2

Troon, you almost got it earlier.

Is it because X^2 will only equal X when X=1 or 0? Although this proof still works for 1 there...

Nice thread. This should be done more often.

There is an other, longer way of doing this, be decomposing the Ln's:
The (...) stand for 'etc' type of things :roll:

Ln(2) = [1-(1/2)] + [(1/3)+(1/4)] + [(1/5)+(1/6)] + [...]) =

= [1+(1/3) + (1/5) + (...)] - [(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/6)+(...)] =

= ([1+(1/3) + (1/5) + (...)] - [(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/6)+(...)]) - 2[(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/6)+(...)] =

= [1 + (1/2) + (1/3) + (...)] - [1+ (1/2) + (1/3) + (...)] =

= 0.

Now we have Ln(2) = 0.
But: Ln(1) = 0, because e^2 = 0(as well as n^2=0)

So we have:

Ln(2)=Ln(1)=0

Lets take the expotent:

e^ln(2) = e^ln(1)

And because b^Ln(a) = a, we have:

2 = 1

I hope you got all the funny stuff :?

Please note, that I have sources to confirm the Ln(2)=0 this fact, such as:

http://numbers.computation.free.fr/Constants/Log2/log2Formulas.html

Enjoy! :D

But I'll give one more hint, it has to do with the first two equations.

1 = X
and
X = X^2


that's what i thought. but, bugger that's practically giving the answer away.

In an effort to see which nations are advanced and which are, as the Esamopian Minister of Science said: "plain dumb," Esamopia City mathematician, Dr. Hemin Harr, has provided the following proof:

Let X=1

1 = X
X = X^2
X-1 = X^2 - 1
X-1 = (X-1)(X+1)
dividing each side by (X-1)
1 = X+1,
1 = 2 !!

Nations having an answer to this "mysterious" :roll: proof should send post their results here or hopefully send a telegram (as this will prove that you did not cheat off of whatever nation gets the answer.)

Good luck... first ten nations with correct answer get free cookies... or something!WRONG!!

You can not divide both sides by X-1, because that would be 1-1, and 1-1 is ZERO! and you can not divide by zero!! DUH!

In an effort to see which nations are advanced and which are, as the Esamopian Minister of Science said: "plain dumb," Esamopia City mathematician, Dr. Hemin Harr, has provided the following proof:

Let X=1

1 = X
X = X^2
X-1 = X^2 - 1
X-1 = (X-1)(X+1)
dividing each side by (X-1)
1 = X+1,
1 = 2 !!

Nations having an answer to this "mysterious" :roll: proof should send post their results here or hopefully send a telegram (as this will prove that you did not cheat off of whatever nation gets the answer.)

Good luck... first ten nations with correct answer get free cookies... or something!WRONG!!

You can not divide both sides by X-1, because that would be 1-1, and 1-1 is ZERO! and you can not divide by zero!! DUH!

*slaps Raysia for not reading first*

In an effort to see which nations are advanced and which are, as the Esamopian Minister of Science said: "plain dumb," Esamopia City mathematician, Dr. Hemin Harr, has provided the following proof:

Let X=1

1 = X
X = X^2
X-1 = X^2 - 1
X-1 = (X-1)(X+1)
dividing each side by (X-1)
1 = X+1,
1 = 2 !!

Nations having an answer to this "mysterious" :roll: proof should send post their results here or hopefully send a telegram (as this will prove that you did not cheat off of whatever nation gets the answer.)

Good luck... first ten nations with correct answer get free cookies... or something!WRONG!!

You can not divide both sides by X-1, because that would be 1-1, and 1-1 is ZERO! and you can not divide by zero!! DUH!

*slaps Raysia for not reading first*hehehehehe

actually that doesnt work. when u divide by x-1, ur dividing by 0 since x=1

actually that doesnt work. when u divide by x-1, ur dividing by 0 since x=1

the manouveur is legitimate. you are dividing by x-1 not 1-1 or 0. when you analyze the set of statements like that you aren't really looking at the same set of statements. you are looking at two different sets. it is like watching two different movies, and trying to swap scenes in each of them and still have a coherent movie.

So what's the actual answer then? This has been inactive for long enough, methinks.